Ratio Building Blocks — Decode Any Question

Every ratio is one number divided by another. The division is never where marks are lost. Marks are lost in building the two numbers: what goes into Current Liabilities, when a bank overdraft comes out to make Quick Liabilities, what Shareholders' Funds leaves out, which profit (EBIT, EBT or NPAT) a ratio needs, and when to average. This page covers each of those building blocks first, so the formulas on the next page make sense.

SYLLABUS: UNIT 7 · 9 HOURS LECTURES: 10–12 BLOOM LEVEL: ANALYSE CO MAPPED: CO3, CO4 ASSESSED IN: TERM WORK, TEE Sources: Ratio deck 52 slides Your notes pp. 25–41
◆ Read this page in order, once. After that, use the lookup table in §9.

Ratio analysis is Unit 7 of your syllabus, "Ratio analysis, its meaning and uses, Liquidity ratios, Leverage ratios, Profitability ratios, Activity ratios" Syllabus p. 1. It is taught in Lectures 10–12 at Bloom level ANALYSE and assessed in Term Work and the TEE CP p. 4. Both 2025-26 papers had a 10-mark ratio question (Q4) and a 5-mark ratio theory question (Q7b). All of them are solved on the Solve page and, with the rest of both papers, on Solved Papers.

How this section is organised: Building Blocks (this page) → The Formulas, family by family → Solve Anything (all 12 deck problems, all 5 practice-sheet problems, both exam questions, and a line-by-line check of your handwritten notes).

1. Where Each Number Comes From Read first

A ratio question gives you two statements. Know which one each number comes from, because that tells you whether it needs averaging.

Balance SheetProfit & Loss (Income Statement)
What it measuresA stock: what the business has and owes on one date (31 March)A flow: what happened over the whole year
Items you take from itCurrent assets, current liabilities, stock, debtors, creditors, capital, reserves, loans, fixed assetsSales, COGS, gross profit, expenses, interest, tax, net profit, purchases
Ratios built only from itCurrent, Quick, Debt-Equity, ProprietaryGP, NP, Operating ratio, Expense ratios, Interest Coverage
Ratios that mix bothROA, ROCE, ROE, and all the turnover ratios. These are the ratios that use averages, because a year-long flow is compared with a balance that changed during the year. See §8.
⚠ Reading a horizontal (T-form) P&L — Siddharth Ltd, practice sheet Q1

Your practice sheet gives the P&L in the old "To … / By …" form sheet p. 1. It contains two accounts stacked on top of each other:

  • Top half = Trading Account. It gives you COGS (Opening stock + Purchases + Wages − Closing stock) and Gross Profit. Every item on the left above "Gross profit c/d" is a direct cost.
  • Bottom half = P&L Account. Starts with "By Gross profit b/d". The left side lists the indirect expenses (salaries, rent, selling, depreciation, interest, provision for tax). The right side lists other incomes (interest on investment). The balancing figure is Net profit.

"Net profit c/d ₹50,000" comes after "provision for tax ₹20,000", so ₹50,000 is NPAT, not NPBT. Check where tax sits before labelling a profit figure.


2. Current Assets and Current Liabilities Liquidity ratios

Current means "will turn into cash, or must be paid in cash, within one year". Apply that single test and every classification follows.

Current Assets (CA)
Become cash within 12 months
Cash in hand · Cash at bank
Marketable securities (short-term investments)
Debtors / Receivables / Trade receivables
Bills Receivable
Stock / Inventory (raw material, WIP, finished goods)
Prepaid expenses
Advances (to suppliers, staff)
Accrued income

NOT CA: long-term investments, fixed assets, goodwill, preliminary expenses (not a real asset at all, see §4)
Current Liabilities (CL)
Must be paid within 12 months
Creditors / Trade payables / Accounts payable
Bills Payable
Outstanding expenses
Bank Overdraft / Cash Credit
Short-term loans / short-term borrowings
Provision for tax / Taxes payable
Proposed dividend (equity or preference)
Income received in advance · Unclaimed dividend

NOT CL: debentures, long-term loans, "bank loan payable after 5 years", share capital, reserves
◆ Three items students put on the wrong side, all from your practice sheet
  1. Provision for tax and Proposed dividend are current liabilities. Your notes say so on the Siddharth solution: "Provision for tax & Proposed Dividend are Current Liabilities" notes p. 37. They are payable within the year.
  2. "Bank Loans (Payable after 5 years)" is not a current liability, even though the word "bank" appears in it. It is long-term debt. The bracket is there to test exactly this. sheet Q1
  3. 9% Debentures ₹5,00,000 in practice sheet Q2 is a distractor. It is long-term, so it plays no part in current, liquid, stock-turnover or debtor-days calculations. sheet Q2

3. Quick Assets and Quick Liabilities The one that confuses everyone

The Acid-Test / Quick / Liquid Ratio is a stricter version of the current ratio. It asks: if the business had to pay its short-term debts right now, without selling any stock, could it? To answer that, both halves of the current ratio are trimmed. Your deck puts it in one line slide 14:

Acid-Test Ratio, as your lecture deck defines it
\[ \text{Acid-Test Ratio} = \frac{\text{Quick Assets}}{\text{Quick Liabilities}} = \frac{\text{CA} - (\text{Inventory} + \text{Prepaid expenses})}{\text{CL} - \text{Bank Overdraft}} \qquad \text{Standard} = 1:1 \]

1Quick Assets: take out whatever cannot become cash quickly

Remove from CAWhy it is not "quick"
Inventory / Stock (all kinds: raw materials, WIP, finished goods, stores, loose tools)Stock must first be sold, and if sold on credit it then has to be collected. That is two steps and an uncertain price. In a hurry it may sell only at a heavy discount.
Prepaid expenses (prepaid insurance, prepaid rent)They can never become cash. They are a right to receive a service, not money.
Advances paid to suppliersSame logic as prepaid: goods or services will come back, not cash. Your notes exclude "Advance ₹2,000" in practice sheet Q2 notes p. 35. That is correct.

What remains is Quick Assets: cash and bank balances, short-term marketable securities, debtors and bills receivable slide 14.

You can build Quick Assets in two ways, and both must give the same answer. Pick the shorter one for the question in front of you:

Two routes to the same number
\[ \text{QA} = \text{CA} - \text{Inventory} - \text{Prepaid} \qquad\text{or}\qquad \text{QA} = \text{Cash} + \text{Bank} + \text{Marketable securities} + \text{Debtors} + \text{B/R} \]

2Quick Liabilities: take out the Bank Overdraft

Quick Liabilities = Current Liabilities − Bank Overdraft (and Cash Credit, which is the same kind of facility). Everything else in CL stays in: creditors, bills payable, outstanding expenses, provision for tax, proposed dividend, short-term loans.

Why is the overdraft removed? A bank overdraft is technically repayable on demand, so it is a current liability. In practice it is a running credit line that the bank renews year after year (secured against stock and debtors). The business is never actually asked to repay it in one go. The quick ratio measures the genuinely urgent claims, so the overdraft comes out. The reasoning is the same on both sides: stock is removed from the top because it is slow to turn into cash, and the overdraft is removed from the bottom because it is slow to be demanded.

◆ How to know if a question involves Quick Liabilities: the three cases

Scan the liabilities side of the balance sheet for any of these words: Bank OverdraftBank O/DODCash CreditCC A/c. Then:

CaseWhat you seeWhat you doExample
ANo overdraft anywhere in the questionQL = CL. Nothing to deduct. Write one line saying so: "No bank overdraft, hence QL = CL." This is the most common case.Deck Q1, Q2 · Sheet Q3 (PVC) · both 2025-26 exam questions
BBank overdraft is listedQL = CL − Bank OD. Show the subtraction.Sheet Q1 (Siddharth: OD ₹20,000) · Sheet Q2, 2019 (OD ₹2,000)
CThe question itself says "Liquid assets ÷ Current liabilities", or the key you are following uses CL as the denominatorUse CL as told, and state the convention in one line.2025-26 Re-Exam answer key (see the warning below)
⚠ Only the overdraft comes out. Other bank borrowings stay in.

Students see "Bank" and deduct every bank item. Only the overdraft / cash credit comes out.

  • Short-term Bank Loan (Zen Ltd, deck Q2, ₹45,000 and ₹25,000) is a fixed loan with a repayment date. It stays in QL. That is why the deck's answer divides by the full ₹55,000 and ₹30,000 slide 16.
  • Short-term Debt (deck Q1, $15m) stays in too. It is not described as an overdraft slide 15.
  • Short-term Borrowings (Zenith Ltd, 2025-26 Final) stays in.

3Worked: Siddharth Ltd, where the overdraft is present

Balance sheet extract, practice sheet Q1 sheet p. 1:

WhyWhat to write
List every current asset. Investment ₹1,00,000 is long-term (it earns "interest on investment") and preliminary expenses are fictitious, so both are left out.
CA \(= \) Stock 80,000 + Debtors 60,000 + B/R 50,000 + Cash 85,000 \(= \)₹2,75,000
Take out stock. There are no prepaid expenses in this question.
QA \(= 2{,}75{,}000 - 80{,}000 = \)₹1,95,000
List every current liability. The 10% debentures and "Bank Loans (payable after 5 years)" are long-term and stay out.
CL \(= \) Creditors 60,000 + Prov. for tax 20,000 + Bank OD 20,000 + Proposed pref. div. 8,000 \(= \)₹1,08,000
Case B: an overdraft is present, so take it out.
QL \(= 1{,}08{,}000 - 20{,}000 = \)₹88,000
Divide, and express as "x : 1".
\(\dfrac{1{,}95{,}000}{88{,}000} = \)2.22 : 1
If the denominator were CL instead: \(1{,}95{,}000 \div 1{,}08{,}000 = 1.81:1\). The overdraft makes that much difference.

Your notes get 2.21 : 1 by the same method notes p. 37. The exact figure is 2.216, which rounds to 2.22. Round, don't truncate.

⚠ Your deck and your exam answer key use different denominators

Your lecture deck divides by Quick Liabilities (CL − Bank OD) slide 14. The 2025-26 Re-Exam answer key writes "Quick Ratio = (Current Assets − Inventory − Prepaid) ÷ Current Liabilities". Many textbooks also use CL.

In that exam question the two conventions gave the same answer, because there was no overdraft. They only differ when an overdraft is present (Case B). When that happens: use your deck's QL method as your main answer, and add one line: "Bank overdraft is excluded from quick liabilities as it is a quasi-permanent source of finance." That line shows the examiner you know both conventions and why the difference exists.


4. Shareholders' Funds (Equity) Leverage & returns

Your notes include a line worth memorising: "Equity, shareholder fund, net worth, owner fund, all same" notes p. 27. Add owned funds and proprietors' funds to that list. These six names all mean one number:

Shareholders' Funds / Net Worth / Owned Funds
\[ \text{SH Funds} = \text{Equity capital} + \text{Preference capital} + \text{Reserves \& Surplus} - \text{Fictitious assets} \]

Deck slide 18 and slide 19; your notes p. 26.

Include (+)Deduct (−) — fictitious assetsDo NOT include
Equity share capital
Preference share capital
General reserve · Reserve fund
Profit & Loss A/c (credit balance)
Securities premium · Capital reserve
Investment allowance reserve
Retained profit for the year
Preliminary expenses
Discount on issue of shares/debentures
Underwriting commission (unwritten-off)
P&L A/c (debit balance), i.e. accumulated losses
Debentures · long-term loans (these are debt)
Proposed dividend · provision for tax (these are CL)
Creditors of any kind

Why are fictitious assets deducted? Preliminary expenses (the cost of forming the company) sit on the assets side only because they have not been written off yet. They cannot be sold and they are worth nothing. Leaving them in would overstate what the owners actually own. Deck Q3 (ABC Company) tests exactly this: SH Funds \(= 10{,}00{,}000 + 2{,}00{,}000 - 40{,}000 = ₹11{,}60{,}000\) slide 22.

◆ Three ways the question can give you SH Funds
  1. Line by line (most common): add capital + reserves, subtract fictitious assets.
  2. Named directly, for example "Total Equity ₹33,422": use it as given.
  3. Built from a profit figure: if the question gives NPAT and a proposed dividend separately, the retained part (NPAT − dividend) is added to reserves. Sheet Q4: \(200 + 150 + 50 + (56 - 10) = ₹446\) lakh notes p. 41.

5. Debt: Long-Term vs Total Leverage ratios

Long-Term Debt (Borrowed Funds)Also counted in Total Debt
Debentures (any %)
Long-term loans / Term loans
Bank loans payable after 1 year
Bonds · Public deposits (long-term)
Mortgage loans
Everything on the left, plus all current liabilities: creditors, bills payable, outstanding expenses, provision for tax, bank OD, short-term loans

Your deck's Debt-Equity ratio uses Long-Term Debt slide 18. The 2025-26 Re-Exam asked instead for "Total Debt-Equity Ratio", and its answer key counted every outside liability, current ones included. Read the exact name in the question. If it says "total", include CL. If it just says "Debt-Equity", use long-term debt only.

⚠ "Trade Payables ₹4,00,000" is not debt for D/E

Deck Q3: ABC Company has trade payables of ₹4,00,000 and 12% Borrowings of only ₹40,000. The long-term debt is ₹40,000, and D/E \(= 40{,}000 \div 11{,}60{,}000 = 0.034:1\) slide 22. Trade payables are a current liability. A percentage in the name (12%, 10%, 9%) is a strong hint that the item is interest-bearing long-term debt.


6. Total Assets and Capital Employed Proprietary, ROA, ROCE

1Total Assets

Total Assets: deck definition
\[ \text{Total Assets} = \text{Fixed Assets (net)} + \text{Investments} + \text{Current Assets} \qquad(\text{fictitious assets excluded}) \]

Deck Q3: \(10{,}00{,}000 + 5{,}00{,}000 + (70{,}000 + 30{,}000) = ₹16{,}00{,}000\). The balance-sheet total was ₹16,40,000, and the ₹40,000 difference is the preliminary expenses notes p. 27. Your notes add that "Fixed asset is tangible assets as well as intangible assets". So goodwill, patents and trademarks count (they are real, saleable intangibles). Preliminary expenses do not.

If the question gives only the liabilities side, use the balance-sheet identity. This is how deck Q5 (AZEE Ltd) is solved, and your notes write the identity out notes p. 31:

The identity that finds Total Assets from the other side
\[ \underbrace{\text{FA} + \text{Inv} + \text{CA}}_{\text{Total Assets}} = \underbrace{\text{SH Funds} + \text{Borrowings}}_{\text{Capital Employed}} + \text{CL} \qquad\Rightarrow\qquad 50{,}000 + 12{,}000 + 8{,}000 = 70{,}000 \]

2Capital Employed

Capital Employed: two views, one number
\[ \underbrace{\text{SH Funds} + \text{Long-term Loans}}_{\text{Sources view (deck slide 30)}} \;=\; \underbrace{\text{Total Assets} - \text{Current Liabilities}}_{\text{Application view}} \;=\; \text{FA} + \text{Inv} + \text{Working Capital} \]

Your notes sketch the same thing: "Sources: Shareholders' fund + Borrowed fund = TCE; Application: FA, INV, Working Capital" notes p. 31. Working capital = CA − CL. Use whichever side the question gives you more completely.

Sheet Q4: CE \(= 200 + 150 + 50 + 46 + 300 = ₹746\) lakh. That is share capital, general reserve, investment allowance reserve, retained profit, and the 15% long-term loan.


7. The Profit Ladder: Which Profit Does Each Ratio Need? Profitability & coverage

Your notebook sets this ladder out ("Sales − COGS = GP − Adm exp − S&D exp = EBITDA − D&A = EBIT − Int = EBT − Tax = EAT") just before the ratio pages, and your profitability page builds its margins from it notes p. 29. Each ratio takes its profit from a specific rung, so learn the ladder and the ratios fall into place:

RungHow you get thereRatios that use this rung
Net SalesGross sales − Sales returnsDenominator of every margin and expense ratio · numerator of turnover ratios
− COGSOpening stock + Purchases (net) + Direct expenses (wages, carriage inwards) − Closing stock or Sales − GPInventory turnover · Operating ratio
= Gross ProfitGP Margin
− Operating expensesAdministrative + Selling & Distribution (salaries, rent, office, advertising, carriage outwards)Expense ratios · Operating ratio
= EBITDAEarnings before interest, tax, depreciation, amortisationDSCR
− Depreciation & Amortisation
= EBIT (≈ Operating Profit, PBIT)Interest Coverage · ROCE · Operating Profit Margin
− InterestInterest on debentures, loans, overdraft
= EBT / NPBT / PBTPre-tax (NPBT) margin
− TaxProvision for tax
= EAT / NPAT / PATThe "Net Profit" of the P&LNP Margin · ROA · ROE
− Preference dividendRate × Preference capital
= Earnings for equity shareholdersEPS · Dividend payout

1Climbing the ladder backwards

Questions often give you the bottom of the ladder (NPAT) and ask for a ratio that needs a rung higher up. Four moves cover almost every case:

EBIT from NPAT
\[ \text{EBIT} = \text{NPAT} + \text{Tax} + \text{Interest} \]
When only a tax RATE is given
\[ \text{PBT} = \frac{\text{NPAT}}{1 - t} \qquad\text{e.g. Sheet Q4: } \frac{56}{1 - 0.60} = 140 \]
When interest is hidden in a loan's name
\[ \text{Interest} = \text{Rate} \times \text{Loan} \qquad\text{e.g. "15\% loan ₹300 lakh": } 0.15 \times 300 = 45 \;\Rightarrow\; \text{EBIT} = 140 + 45 = 185 \]
COGS when only Sales and GP are given
\[ \text{COGS} = \text{Sales} - \text{Gross Profit} \qquad\text{e.g. Deck Q9: } 75{,}000 - 35{,}000 = 40{,}000 \]

2Operating vs non-operating vs financing: what counts as "operating expense"

ItemClassGoes into Operating ratio?
Salaries, rent, office & general, misc. expenses, selling, advertising, carriage outwardsOperatingYes
DepreciationOperating (cost of using the assets)Yes. EBIT is struck after depreciation, and your deck's ICR problem deducts it too slide 23
Interest paid on loans / debentures / ODFinancingNo. It is the cost of borrowing, not of operating. That is exactly why EBIT is struck before it.
Provision for taxAppropriation of profitNo
Interest / dividend received on investments, rent receivedNon-operating incomeNo
Loss on sale of investment or fixed assetNon-operating lossNo

This decides the Siddharth operating ratio. Your notes add interest (₹5,000) to operating expenses and get 92.78%. Leaving interest out gives 92.22%. See the full solution.


8. Averages, Credit Sales and the Other Turnover Inputs Activity ratios

◆ The averaging rule

If the question gives both opening and closing balances, average them. If it gives only one balance sheet, use the closing figure.

Average of any balance
\[ \text{Average} = \frac{\text{Opening} + \text{Closing}}{2} \]

Your deck averages whenever it can (Q9 inventory, Q10 receivables, Q11 payables) slides 47–49. Your 2025-26 exam answer key used closing receivables and closing fixed assets, because each year's balance sheet was given on its own. Sheet Q2 shows both in one question: 2018 uses closing stock only (no 2017 figure exists), and 2019 averages 2018 and 2019 notes p. 36.

InputBuild it asIf the question is silent
Credit salesGross credit sales − Sales returns (deck Q10: \(1{,}00{,}000 - 10{,}000\))Assume all sales are credit sales and say so. Your notes do this: "It is assumed that all sales are credit sales" p. 36
Credit purchasesCredit purchases − Purchase returns (deck Q11)Assume all purchases are credit. Your notes: "All purchase assume to be credit purchase" p. 38
Debtors for turnoverDebtors + Bills Receivable (deck formula: "Average Debtors & Bills Receivable") slide 44Use them gross, before any provision for doubtful debts
Creditors for turnoverCreditors + Bills Payable slide 45
Inventory for turnoverAverage of opening and closing stock (finished goods for a trader) slide 43Opening stock is often hiding in the Trading A/c ("To Opening stock"), not in the balance sheet
Fixed assets for turnoverNet of accumulated depreciation (deck Q12: \(50{,}00{,}000 - 20{,}00{,}000\))
Days in a year365 for days · 12 for months · 52 for weeksDefault to 365 days

1Per-share inputs: the arithmetic behind EPS, DPS and P/E

You needHow to get itExample
Number of equity sharesEquity share capital ÷ Face value per shareSiddharth: \(1{,}50{,}000 \div 10 = 15{,}000\) shares · PVC: \(5{,}00{,}000 \div 10 = 50{,}000\)
Preference dividendRate × Preference capital. Deduct it whether or not it is "proposed", because the preference holders are paid before equity.\(8\% \times 1{,}00{,}000 = ₹8{,}000\)
DPS from a percentage"25% dividend" means 25% of FACE value, not of market pricePVC: \(25\% \times ₹10 = ₹2.50\) per share
Total equity dividendDPS × Number of equity shares\(₹2.50 \times 50{,}000 = ₹1{,}25{,}000\)
MPSGiven directly ("market value of equity share is ₹12")

9. The Lookup Table: Where Does Each Item Go? Keep this open while solving

Tick = included. − = deducted. Blank = ignore for that aggregate. QL follows your deck: CL minus bank overdraft.

Item in the questionCAQACLQLSH FundsLT DebtTotal AssetsCap. Employed
Liabilities side
Equity share capital✓✓
Preference share capital✓✓
Reserves & Surplus / General reserve / P&L (Cr)✓✓
Debentures / Long-term loans / Term loan✓✓
Bank loan payable after 1+ years✓✓
Creditors / Trade payables✓✓
Bills payable✓✓
Outstanding expenses✓✓
Provision for tax / Taxes payable✓✓
Proposed dividend✓✓
Short-term loan / Short-term bank loan✓✓
Bank overdraft / Cash credit✓✗
Assets side
Fixed assets (net of depreciation), goodwill, patents✓✓
Long-term investments✓✓
Stock / Inventory✓✗✓✓ via WC
Prepaid expenses · Advances to suppliers✓✗✓✓ via WC
Debtors · Bills receivable✓✓✓✓ via WC
Cash in hand · Cash at bank✓✓✓✓ via WC
Marketable (short-term) securities✓✓✓✓ via WC
Preliminary expenses / Discount on issue / P&L (Dr)−✗✗
◆ Where to go next

You now know how to build every number. The Formulas, family by family → covers all 31 ratios: what each means, its standard, how to read a high or low value, and what the question must give you. Then Solve Anything → works every problem your deck, your practice sheet and your 2025-26 papers set.

Sources
Deck Financial Analysis using Ratios: liquidity slides 12–16 · leverage 17–23 · returns 30–31 · turnover 42–50
Faculty Financial Ratios practice sheet Q1–Q5 pp. 1–3
Your notes Handwritten ratio pages notebook pp. 25–41